Yes, this is just a rephrasing of my question. and the answer is No they are not. You have shown no cases where CA has ALLOWED indoor protests WITHIN ITS JURISDICTION to occur. None. Seattle doesn’t count because it is outside the jurisdiction of CA.

Indoors vs. Outdoors is not a false distinction. it is just a false claim on your part. No matter how many times you repeat a false statement, it won’t make it true.

” Oh, we’re meetin’ at the courthouse at eight o’clock tonight
You just walk in the door and take the first turn to the right
Be careful when you get there, we hate to be bereft
But we’re taking down the names of everybody turning left
Oh, we’re the John Birch Society, the John Birch Society
Here to save our country from a communistic plot
Join the John Birch Society, help us fill the ranks
To get this movement started we need lots of tools and cranks
You cannot trust your neighbor or even next of kin
If mommie is a commie then you gotta turn her in,
Fighting for the right to fight the right fight for the Right”

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=oWCYSVZhPoU

“Social/Marxist” is the new Godwin’s Law 2.0

No. Your question is constructed purposefully to avoid the actual legal standard. You didn’t construct it that way, you’re just a sucker who believes the Marxist BS.

The question is “Is the State of California implementing a prior restraint on people’s 1st Amendment rights in a manner that is not content neutral.”
They are. They’re restricting church services while turning a blind eye toward racist protests.

They and people like you are using a false distinction (i.e. indoors vs. outdoors) to rationalize the blatant violation of the Bill of Rights. They know it, you don’t. You just believe their junk “science” because you are what they refer to us a “useful idiot.”